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NEW QUESTION # 127
Which key storage solution would be the BEST choice in a situation where availability might be of a particular concern?
Response:
- A. External
- B. Embedded
- C. Internal
- D. Hosted
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 128
Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data at rest?
- A. Network firewall
- B. Application server
- C. Database server
- D. Host system
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
To monitor data at rest appropriately, the DLP solution would be installed on the host system where the data resides. A database server, in some situations, may be an appropriate answer, but the host system is the best answer because a database server is only one example of where data could reside. An application server processes data and typically sits between the data and presentation zones, and as such, does not store data at rest. A network firewall would be more appropriate for data in transit because it is not a place where data would reside.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement and guidance for testing during an audit?
- A. Management
- B. Shareholders
- C. Regulations
- D. Stakeholders
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
During any audit, regulations are the most important factor and guidelines for what must be tested. Although the requirements from management, stakeholders, and shareholders are also important, regulations are not negotiable and pose the biggest risk to any organization for compliance failure.
NEW QUESTION # 130
Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in use?
- A. Application server
- B. Database server
- C. Network perimeter
- D. User's client
Answer: D
Explanation:
To monitor data in use, the DLP solution's optimal location would be on the user's client or workstation, where the data would be used or processed, and where it would be most vulnerable to access or exposure. The network perimeter is most appropriate for data in transit, and an application server would serve as middle stage between data at rest and data in use, but is a less correct answer than a user's client. A database server would be an example of a location appropriate for monitoring data at rest.
NEW QUESTION # 131
If you are running an application that has strict legal requirements that the data cannot reside on systems that contain other applications or systems, which aspect of cloud computing would be prohibitive in this case?
- A. Elasticity
- B. Portability
- C. Multitenancy
- D. Broad network access
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Multitenancy is the aspect of cloud computing that involves having multiple customers and applications running within the same system and sharing the same resources. Although considerable mechanisms are in place to ensure isolation and separation, the data and applications are ultimately using shared resources. Broad network access refers to the ability to access cloud services from any location or client. Portability refers to the ability to easily move cloud services between different cloud providers, whereas elasticity refers to the capabilities of a cloud environment to add or remove services, as needed, to meet current demand.
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in regard to tiers and topologies?
- A. NFPA
- B. BICSI
- C. IDCA
- D. Uptime Institute
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The Uptime Institute publishes the most commonly used and widely known standard on data center tiers and topologies. It is based on a series of four tiers, with each progressive increase in number representing more stringent, reliable, and redundant systems for security, connectivity, fault tolerance, redundancy, and cooling.
NEW QUESTION # 133
In order to comply with regulatory requirements, which of the following secure erasure methods would be available to a cloud customer using volume storage within the IaaS service model?
- A. Shredding
- B. Demagnetizing
- C. Degaussing
- D. Cryptographic erasure
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cryptographic erasure is a secure method to destroy data by destroying the keys that were used to encrypt it.
This method is universally available for volume storage on IaaS and is also extremely quick. Shredding, degaussing, and demagnetizing are all physically destructive methods that would not be permitted within a cloud environment using shared resources.
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following frameworks focuses specifically on design implementation and management?
- A. ISO 27017
- B. NIST 800-92
- C. ISO 31000:2009
- D. HIPAA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
ISO 31000:2009 specifically focuses on design implementation and management. HIPAA refers to health care regulations, NIST 800-92 is about log management, and ISO 27017 is about cloud specific security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following threat types can occur when an application does not properly validate input and can be leveraged to send users to malicious sites that appear to be legitimate?
- A. Sensitive data exposure
- B. Security miscomfiguration
- C. Insecure direct object references
- D. Unvalidated redirects and forwards
Answer: D
Explanation:
Many web applications offer redirect or forward pages that send users to different, external sites. If these pages are not properly secured and validated, attackers can use the application to forward users off to sites for phishing or malware attempts. These attempts can often be more successful than direct phishing attempts because users will trust the site or application that sent them there, and they will assume it has been properly validated and approved by the trusted application's owners or operators. Security misconfiguration occurs when applications and systems are not properly configured for security--often a result of misapplied or inadequate baselines. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.
NEW QUESTION # 136
What are third-party providers of IAM functions for the cloud environment?
- A. DLPs
- B. CASBs
- C. SIEMs
- D. AESs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Data loss, leak prevention, and protection is a family of tools used to reduce the possibility of unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information. SIEMs are tools used to collate and manage log data. AES is an encryption standard.
NEW QUESTION # 137
What is the experimental technology that might lead to the possibility of processing encrypted data without having to decrypt it first?
- A. One-time pads
- B. Link encryption
- C. Homomorphic encryption
- D. AES
Answer: C
Explanation:
AES is an encryption standard. Link encryption is a method for protecting communications traffic. One-time pads are an encryption method.
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following roles involves testing, monitoring, and securing cloud services for an organization?
- A. Cloud service business manager
- B. Cloud service user
- C. Cloud service integrator
- D. Cloud service administrator
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The cloud service administrator is responsible for testing cloud services, monitoring services, administering security for services, providing usage reports on cloud services, and addressing problem reports
NEW QUESTION # 139
Your IT steering committee has, at a high level, approved your project to begin using cloud services. However, the committee is concerned with getting locked into a single cloud provider and has flagged the ability to easily move between cloud providers as a top priority. It also wants to save costs by reusing components.
Which cross-cutting aspect of cloud computing would be your primary focus as your project plan continues to develop and you begin to evaluate cloud providers?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Scalability
- C. Portability
- D. Resiliency
Answer: A
Explanation:
Interoperability is ability to easily move between cloud providers, by either moving or reusing components and services. This can pertain to any cloud deployment model, and it gives organizations the ability to constantly evaluate costs and services as well as move their business to another cloud provider as needed or desired. Portability relates to the wholesale moving of services from one cloud provider to another, not necessarily the reuse of components or services for other purposes. Although resiliency is not an official concept within cloud computing, it certainly would be found throughout other topics such as elasticity, auto- scaling, and resource pooling. Scalability pertains to changing resource allocations to a service to meet current demand, either upward or downward in scope.
NEW QUESTION # 140
Data transformation in a cloud environment should be of great concern to organizations considering cloud migration because __________ could affect data classification processes/implementations.
Response:
- A. Virtualization
- B. Physical distance
- C. Remote access
- D. Multitenancy
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 141
What are SOC 1/SOC 2/SOC 3?
- A. Access controls
- B. Risk management frameworks
- C. Software developments
- D. Audit reports
Answer: D
Explanation:
An SOC 1 is a report on controls at a service organization that may be relevant to a user entity's internal control over financial reporting. An SOC 2 report is based on the existing SysTrust and WebTrust principles. The purpose of an SOC 2 report is to evaluate an organization's information systems relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, or privacy. An SOC 3 report is also based on the existing SysTrust and WebTrust principles, like a SOC 2 report. The difference is that the SOC 3 report does not detail the testing performed.
NEW QUESTION # 142
What concept does the D represent within the STRIDE threat model?
- A. Data breach
- B. Data loss
- C. Distributed
- D. Denial of service
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Any application can be a possible target of denial of service (DoS) attacks. From the application side, the developers should minimize how many operations are performed for unauthenticated users. This will keep the application running as quickly as possible and using the least amount of system resources to help minimize the impact of any such attacks. None of the other options provided is the correct term.
NEW QUESTION # 143
A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor for threats and issue alerts, and others that take action based on signatures, behavior, and other types of rules to actively stop potential threats.
Which of the following types of technologies is best described here?
- A. IDS
- B. Proxy
- C. IPS
- D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can inspect traffic and detect any suspicious traffic based on a variety of factors, but it can also actively block such traffic. Although an IDS can detect the same types of suspicious traffic as an IPS, it is only design to alert, not to block. A firewall is only concerned with IP addresses, ports, and protocols; it cannot be used for the signature-based detection of traffic. A proxy can limit or direct traffic based on more extensive factors than a network firewall can, but it's not capable of using the same signature detection rules as an IPS.
NEW QUESTION # 144
What strategy involves hiding data in a data set to prevent someone from identifying specific individuals based on other data fields present?
- A. Tokenization
- B. Masking
- C. Obfuscation
- D. Anonymization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
With data anonymization, data is manipulated in such a way so as to prevent the identification of an individual through various data objects, and is often used in conjunction with other concepts such as masking.
NEW QUESTION # 145
What type of PII is regulated based on the type of application or per the conditions of the specific hosting agreement?
- A. Specific
- B. Jurisdictional
- C. regulated
- D. Contractual
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Contractual PII has specific requirements for the handling of sensitive and personal information, as defined at a contractual level. These specific requirements will typically document the required handling procedures and policies to deal with PII. They may be in specific security controls and configurations, required policies or procedures, or limitations on who may gain authorized access to data and systems.
NEW QUESTION # 146
Many aspects of cloud computing bring enormous benefits over a traditional data center, but also introduce new challenges unique to cloud computing.
Which of the following aspects of cloud computing makes appropriate data classification of high importance?
- A. Interoperability
- B. Portability
- C. Reversibility
- D. Multitenancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With multitenancy, where different cloud customers all share the same physical systems and networks, data classification becomes even more important to ensure that the appropriate security controls are applied immediately to prevent any potential leakage or exposure to other customers. Portability refers to the ability to move easily from one cloud provider to another. Interoperability refers to the ability to reuse components and services for different uses. Reversibility refers to the ability of the cloud customer to quickly and completely remove all data and services from a cloud provider and to verify the removal.
NEW QUESTION # 147
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