[May-2024] CTFL_Syll2018 Pre-Exam Practice Tests | Exam Questions and Answers for ISQI CTFL2018 Study Guide
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Certification Sample Questions
The CTFL_Syll2018 Certification Exam is a multiple-choice exam that consists of 40 questions, and candidates have 60 minutes to complete the exam. CTFL_Syll2018 exam is available in multiple languages and can be taken at any ISQI exam center worldwide. Upon passing the certification exam, candidates will receive a certificate that is recognized globally and demonstrates their knowledge and skills in software testing. The CTFL_Syll2018 Certification Exam is an excellent opportunity for testers to validate their testing knowledge and improve their career prospects.
NEW QUESTION # 179
Which of the following is a white-box test technique?
- A. Statement testing
- B. Error guessing
- C. Decision table testing
- D. Exploratory testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Statement testing is a white box test technique2. A white box technique is a technique that uses the internal structure or logic of a system as a test basis to derive test cases and measure test coverage2. Statement testing is a technique that uses executable statements in the source code as a test basis to measure the coverage achieved by a test suite2. A statement is an instruction or command that performs an action or calculation in the source code2. Statement testing requires every statement in the source code to be executed at least once by a test suite2. Therefore, statement testing is a white box test technique.
NEW QUESTION # 180
Which of the following are part of ISTQB code of ethics?
I. Certified software testers shall advance the integrity and reputation of the profession consistent with the
public interest
II. Certified software tester shall always sign a NDA (Non Disclosure Agreement) in presence of customer
data
III. Certified software testers shall maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment
IV Certified software testers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and employer,
consistent with the public interest
- A. I, III, IV
- B. I, II, III
- C. II, III, IV
- D. I, II, V
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 181
Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]
- A. The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects
- B. The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics
- C. The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project
- D. The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products
Answer: B
Explanation:
The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics1. A software development model is a framework that defines the activities, tasks, roles, and deliverables of a software project1. There are various software development models, such as waterfall, V-model, iterative, incremental, agile, etc1. The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics, such as size, complexity, scope, requirements, quality attributes, risks, resources, schedule, budget, etc1. Different software development models have different advantages and disadvantages for different types of products and projects1. Therefore, the choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics.
NEW QUESTION # 182
Which defect below is MOST likely to be found by a review during static testing?
- A. Incorrect interface specifications.
- B. Performance bottlenecks.
- C. Broken links to web addresses.
- D. Old versions of software in use.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Incorrect interface specifications are most likely to be found by a review during static testing. A review is a type of static testing technique that involves a manual examination of a work product by one or more individuals who follow a defined process. A review can be applied to any work product, such as requirements specifications, design specifications, code, test cases, test plans, user manuals, etc. A review can help find defects and improve the quality of any work product at any stage of the software development lifecycle.
Incorrect interface specifications are defects that affect the definition and communication of the interfaces between components or systems. These defects can be detected by reviewing the interface specifications document and comparing it with the requirements and design specifications.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 183
Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?
I. Stubs and drivers are often used
II The test environment should correspond to the production environment III. Finding defects is not the main focus IV Testing can be based on use cases
V. Testing is normally performed by testers
VI. Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics
- A. Component-VI Integration - IV System -1 Acceptance-III
- B. Component - IV Integration -1 System-VI Acceptance-V
- C. Component-V Integration - II System - IV Acceptance-VI
- D. Component -1 Integration - V System - II Acceptance - IV
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attributes that best match each level of testing are as follows14:
* Component testing: Stubs and drivers are often used (I), as they simulate the behavior of missing or incomplete components.
* Integration testing: Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics (VI), as integration testing verifies that components interact correctly and meet their specified requirements.
* System testing: The test environment should correspond to the production environment (II), as system testing evaluates the system's compliance with its specified requirements under realistic conditions.
* Acceptance testing: Testing can be based on use cases (IV), as acceptance testing validates that the system meets the user's needs and expectations
NEW QUESTION # 184
System testing is:
- A. The responsibility of the users of a system.
- B. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.
- C. Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.
- D. Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development
project.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 185
What is a "test harness"?
- A. A general name for test data that is used by the test cases.
- B. One of the topics that needs to be covered in the final Test Report.
- C. A detailed description of a test case to enable its execution by non-expert tester.
- D. A test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A test harness is a test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test, especially when testing components or interfaces. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect, as a test harness is not a topic for the final Test Report. Option B is incorrect, as a test harness is not a general name for test data.
Option C is incorrect, as a test harness is not a detailed description of a test case.
References: Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Section 5.3
NEW QUESTION # 186
Which type of automation test design is used in the example below?
An automation team designs an automation framework for testing of their web-based applications. Realizing that they need to use different data for different test cycles, they decide not to hard-code any data in their scripts Instead they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress.
- A. Data-driven
- B. Dynamic test design
- C. Data coverage analysis
- D. Keyword-driven
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Data-driven is the type of automation test design that is used in the example below. Data-driven testing is a technique to separate the test data from the test scripts and store them in external sources, such as text files, databases, spreadsheets, etc. Data-driven testing allows the test scripts to read the test data from these sources during test execution, which makes the test scripts more reusable and maintainable1 explains data-driven testing as follows:
Data-driven testing is a software testing methodology that is used in the automation testing framework to store the test data in a table or spreadsheet format. This allows automation engineers to have a single test script that can execute tests for all the test data in the table.
Data-driven testing helps to increase the efficiency of automated testing by reducing the number of test scripts required for different scenarios. It also helps to improve the quality of testing by covering more variations of input data and expected results.
A, C, and D are incorrect answers. Dynamic test design, keyword-driven, and data coverage analysis are not types of automation test design that are used in the example below. Dynamic test design is a technique to generate test cases based on dynamic analysis of the system behavior or output during test execution.
Keyword-driven testing is a technique to create test scripts using keywords that represent actions or commands that can be executed by an automation tool. Data coverage analysis is a technique to measure and evaluate how much of the input domain or data set has been covered by the test cases.
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]
- A. Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level
- B. Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities
- C. Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan
- D. Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 188
What is Test Design?
- A. An approach to testing to reduce the level of product risks by focusing on high-risk areas in the product
- B. The process of transforming general testing objectives into tangible test conditions and test cases
- C. The overall process of testing a system to verify that it meets specified requirements.
- D. The process of selecting test techniques to exercise the functions implemented by the tested system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Test design is the process of transforming general testing objectives into tangible test conditions and test cases that can be executed and verified against expected results. Test design involves identifying test techniques, coverage criteria, input data, expected outcomes and other test parameters.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page
53.
NEW QUESTION # 189
You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet
shop selling baby shoes The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters:
- There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based
on the following criteria:
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8.
- B. There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter: age <= 0, and age > 25
- C. All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases.
- D. All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?
- A. Uncalled functions and procedures
- B. Memory leaks
- C. Variables that are never used
- D. Coding standard violations
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Static analysis tools are tools that examine the code or design of a software system without executing it. Static analysis tools can be used to find defects, measure complexity, check compliance, or improve quality. Some examples of defect types that can be found by static analysis tools are:
Variables that are never used: This defect type occurs when a variable is declared but not referenced or assigned in the code, which indicates a waste of memory or a logic error.
Coding standard violations: This defect type occurs when the code does not follow the predefined rules or conventions for formatting, naming, commenting, etc., which affects the readability and maintainability of the code.
Uncalled functions and procedures: This defect type occurs when a function or procedure is defined but not called or invoked in the code, which indicates a waste of resources or a missing functionality.
Memory leaks are defect types that are least likely to be found by static analysis tools because they are related to the dynamic behavior and performance of the software system. Memory leaks occur when a program does not release memory that it has allocated, causing the system to run out of memory and slow down or crash.
Memory leaks can only be detected by dynamic analysis tools that monitor the memory usage of the program during execution. You can find more information about static analysis tools in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], Chapter 6, Section 6.3.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project One of the identified risks is: ''The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment" If this risk materializes, it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- B. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- C. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timelines is a product risk
- D. It is a project risk since successful completion of the project depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
It is a project risk since successful completion of the project depends on successful and timely completion of the tests. defines project risks as follows:
Project risks are risks that affect the project schedule, resources, or budget. They can be related to the project management process, such as planning, estimation, communication, or monitoring. Project risks can also be related to external factors, such as dependencies, stakeholders, vendors, or regulations.
It is not a product risk (B and C), as product risks are risks that affect the quality or performance of the software product. defines product risks as follows:
Product risks are risks that affect the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software product. They can be related to the software requirements, design, implementation, or testing. Product risks can also be related to user expectations, needs, or satisfaction.
It is not no longer a risk for the Test Manager (D), as the sub-contractor's failure may still impact the Test Manager's responsibilities and deliverables. The Test Manager should monitor and mitigate this risk as much as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 192 
In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?
- A. Event C from S3
- B. Event B from S2
- C. Event E from S4
- D. Event D from S4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Event B from S2 is an invalid transition, because it does not exist in the state table. The state table shows the possible transitions between states based on events. For each state, there is a corresponding row that indicates the next state for each event. For example, for state S1, the next state for event A is S2, for event B is S3, and so on. However, for state S2, there is no next state for event B, which means that this transition is invalid
NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing?
- A. It tests "how'' the system works.
- B. It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components.
- C. It may be performed at unit, integration system and acceptance test levels.
- D. It may include testing the ease of modification of systems.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 194
A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.
The user noticed that the result given is 6.
This is an example of:
- A. Error
- B. Mistake
- C. Fault
- D. Failure
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is an example of a failure, which is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits. In this case, the calculator software failed to perform the addition function correctly and gave an incorrect result.
Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus1, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, page
25.
NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?
- A. Percentage of planned test cases designed
- B. Number of test plan review comments
- C. Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation
- D. Number of Test cases passed and failed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The percentage of planned test cases designed is not a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution, because it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the test cases or their alignment with the test objectives1 . The other options are common metrics used for monitoring test preparation and execution. The number of test cases passed and failed indicates the quality and status of the software under test1 . The number of test plan review comments indicates the quality and completeness of the test plan document1 . The percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation indicates the progress and readiness of the test environment1 .
NEW QUESTION # 196
Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?
- A. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program
- B. Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly
- C. Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process
- D. Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite is not a valid use of decision coverage, because it does not meet the minimum criterion of decision coverage, which is to exercise all possible outcomes of each decision in the software under test1 . Decision coverage is a technique that measures how much of the logic or branching of the software under test has been exercised by the test cases1 .
The other options are valid uses of decision coverage. Option A is a valid use of decision coverage, because it can check that all decisions have been exercised in a single program1 . Option B is a valid use of decision coverage, because it can check that all decisions have been exercised in a business process1 . Option C is a valid use of decision coverage, because it can check that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly1 .
NEW QUESTION # 197
Refer to the exhibit
Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.
(i)X-Z-V-W
(ii)W-Y-U-U
- A. (i) = S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S4 and (ii) = S2 -S4 - S4 - S4 - S2
- B. (i) = S2 - S3 - S4 - S2 - S2 and (ii) = S4 - S2 - S4 - S4 - S4
- C. (i) = S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S2 and (ii) = S4 - S2 - S4 - S4 - S4
- D. (i) = S2 - S3 - S4 - S4 - S2 and (ii) = S2 -S3 - S4 -S4 - S4
Answer: C
Explanation:
State transition testing is a technique that uses state transition diagrams as a test basis to derive test cases2. A state transition diagram shows the states of a system and the transitions between them triggered by events or conditions2. A test case can cover one or more state transitions, depending on the test objective and coverage criterion2. In this question, the test cases (i) and (ii) cover different sets of state transitions, as shown below:
Test Case
State Transitions
(i) X-Z-V-W
S1 - S2 - S3 - S4 - S2
(ii) W-Y-U-U
S4 - S2 - S4 - S4 - S4
NEW QUESTION # 198
The following program part is given:
IF (condition A)
then DO B
END IF
How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. a very high number
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 199
......
ISQI CTFL_Syll2018 (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018)) Exam is a certification program that is designed to validate the knowledge and skills of software testers. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) certification is recognized worldwide and is intended for individuals who want to establish their career in software testing. CTFL_Syll2018 exam covers various aspects of software testing, including test design techniques, test management, and test automation. ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) certification is ideal for professionals who wish to demonstrate their knowledge of testing principles and practices.
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