Apr-2024 Pass Your 156-315.81 Exam at the First Try with 100% Real Exam [Q49-Q68]

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Apr-2024 Pass Your 156-315.81 Exam at the First Try with 100% Real Exam

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CheckPoint 156-315.81 certification exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of security professionals in the areas of Check Point security solutions and advanced network security principles. 156-315.81 exam is intended for individuals who want to establish themselves as experts in Check Point security solutions and are looking to advance their career in the field of network security.

 

NEW QUESTION # 49

You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R81 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.
What does this mean?

  • A. This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.
  • B. This rule No. 6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.
  • C. This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.
  • D. This rule No. 6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
You are the administrator for ABC Corp. You have logged into your R81 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.
This means that rule No.6 has been marked for editing in your Management session. In R81, every administrator works in a session that is independent of other administrators. Changes made by one administrator are not visible to others until they are published. When you edit a rule, it is marked with a pencil icon to indicate that it has been modified in your session. You can also lock a rule to prevent other administrators from editing it until you unlock it or publish your session. References: R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 43.


NEW QUESTION # 50
Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic.
However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

  • A. Accept; redirect
  • B. Redirect; drop
  • C. Accept; drop
  • D. Drop; accept

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is drop all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is accept all traffic. The Implied last rule is a rule that is automatically added at the end of each policy layer and defines what to do with traffic that does not match any of the user-defined rules. The default actions for each policy layer can be changed in the Global Properties or in the layer properties. References: R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 30.


NEW QUESTION # 51
UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users. Which action is not supported in UserCheck objects?

  • A. Drop
  • B. Inform
  • C. Reject
  • D. Ask

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
The action that is not supported in UserCheck objects is Reject. UserCheck objects in the Application Control and URL Filtering rules allow the gateway to communicate with the users and display messages or requests on their browsers. The supported actions in UserCheck objects are Ask, Inform, Block, and Continue. The Ask action prompts the user to confirm or cancel an action. The Inform action notifies the user about an event or a policy. The Block action prevents the user from accessing a resource or performing an action. The Continue action allows the user to access a resource or perform an action after displaying a message. References:
[UserCheck]


NEW QUESTION # 52
By default, the R81 web API uses which content-type in its response?

  • A. JSON
  • B. Text
  • C. Java Script
  • D. XML

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
By default, the R81 web API uses JSON as the content-type in its response. JSON stands for JavaScript Object Notation and is a lightweight data-interchange format that is easy to read and write. XML, Java Script, and Text are not the default content-types for the R81 web API. References: : Check Point Software, Getting Started, Web API; : JSON.org, Introducing JSON.


NEW QUESTION # 53
Return oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by which security blade?

  • A. Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation
  • B. Intrusion Prevention Software
  • C. Application control
  • D. Data Loss Prevention

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 54
What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

  • A. 3 Interfaces - an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.
  • B. 1 Interface - an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.
  • C. 4 Interfaces - an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.
  • D. 2 Interfaces - a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 55
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

  • A. Symmetric routing
  • B. Failovers
  • C. Asymmetric routing
  • D. Anti-Spoofing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent asymmetric routing in an Active-Active cluster.
Asymmetric routing occurs when packets from a source to a destination follow a different path than packets from the destination to the source. This can cause problems with stateful inspection and NAT. SDF ensures that packets from the same connection are handled by the same cluster member1. References: Check Point R81 ClusterXL Administration Guide


NEW QUESTION # 56
What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

  • A. Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers
  • B. Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware
  • C. Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.
  • D. Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection that detects and blocks botnet communications from infected hosts to Command & Control servers. It is different from other Threat Prevention mechanisms that prevent malware from entering the network or executing on the hosts. References: Anti-Bot Software Blade


NEW QUESTION # 57
Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

  • A. Log Consolidator
  • B. SmartEvent Server
  • C. Log Server
  • D. Correlation Unit

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 58
What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

  • A. HTTPS
  • B. Firewall
  • C. VPN
  • D. IPS

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
SmartEvent automatically defines events based on IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) alerts. IPS is a feature that detects and prevents malicious network traffic based on predefined or custom signatures. IPS alerts are generated when IPS detects an attack or an anomaly that matches a signature. SmartEvent collects and correlates IPS alerts from different gateways and displays them as events in SmartEventWeb. The other options are not automatically defined as events by SmartEvent.


NEW QUESTION # 59
Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

  • A. fw tab -s
  • B. fw tab -t
  • C. fw tab -n
  • D. fw tab -k

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 60
To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

  • A. fw ctl multik set_mode 1
  • B. fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable
  • C. fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on
  • D. fw ctl multik set_mode 4

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 61
GAIA greatly increases operational efficiency by offering an advanced and intuitive software update agent, commonly referred to as the:

  • A. Check Point Remote Installation Daemon (CPRID)
  • B. Check Point Software Update Agent
  • C. Check Point Update Service Engine
  • D. Check Point Software Update Daemon

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 62
In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

  • A. When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.
  • B. When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.
  • C. When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.
  • D. When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/Topics-SECMG/Working_with_Manual_NAT_Rules.htm?TocPath=Creating%20an%20Access%20Control%20Policy%7CConfiguring%20the%20NAT%20Policy%7C_____2


NEW QUESTION # 63
In terms of Order Rule Enforcement, when a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom Which of the following statements is correct?

  • A. If the rule does not matched in the Network policy it will continue to other enabled polices
  • B. If the Action of the matching rule is Accept the gateway will drop the packet
  • C. If the Action of the matching rule is Drop the gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet
  • D. If the Action of the matching rule is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/CP_R81_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R81/CP_


NEW QUESTION # 64
What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

  • A. Reset SIC on all gateways.
  • B. Remove the installed Security Policy.
  • C. No effect.
  • D. Remove the local ACL lists.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Running the command fw unloadlocal on the Security Management Server will remove the installed Security Policy from the local firewall module. This command is useful for troubleshooting purposes when there is a problem with the policy installation or enforcement. However, it will also expose the Security Management Server to potential attacks, so it should be used with caution. References: Training & Certification | Check Point Software, R81 CCSA & CCSE exams released featuring Promo for... - Check Point ...


NEW QUESTION # 65
Please choose correct command to add an "emailserver1" host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

  • A. add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • B. mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • C. mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • D. host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The correct command to add an "emailserver1" host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI is mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90. This command will create a new host object in the Security Management Server database, with the specified name and IP address. The mgmt: prefix indicates that the command is executed on the Security Management Server, and not on the local GAiA machine. The other commands are either missing the mgmt: prefix, or have incorrect syntax or parameters.


NEW QUESTION # 66
An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

  • A. AD Query
  • B. Browser-Based Authentication
  • C. Identity Agents
  • D. Terminal Servers Agent

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Browser-Based Authentication is an identity awareness method that enables you to identify users who are not authenticated by other methods, such as Active Directory or VPN. Browser-Based Authentication redirects users to a web page where they can enter their credentials and be authenticated by an external server, such as LDAP or RADIUS. After authentication, users can access the Internet and corporate resources according to the security policy rules that apply to their identity.
Browser-Based Authentication is suitable for scenarios where users can use company issued or personal laptops, since it does not require any installation or configuration on the user's device. It also supports various operating systems and browsers, and can be customized to match the company's branding.
The references are:
Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, page 9
Configuring Browser-Based Authentication in SmartConsole
Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 (CCSE) Core Training, slide 13


NEW QUESTION # 67
The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which
2 processes?

  • A. fwd via cpd
  • B. cpm via cpd
  • C. fwm via fwd
  • D. fwd via cpm

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 68
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